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Salaf al-Salih

Does an advance zakah payment count if the year had not yet elapsed?

2026-10-13

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T151 · Ibn Taymiyyah

Shaykh al-Islām Ibn Taymiyyah

شيخ الإسلام أحمد بن تيمية

Original Q&A · Complete source question and answer

Complete original question and answer, 25/86. Both intentions specified by the questioner are preserved, together with the qualification that zakah becomes due.

النص العربي

السؤال الأصلي

وسئل عن رجل تحت يده مال فوق النصاب، فأخرج منه شيئا من زكاة الفرض، ظنا منه أنه قد حال عليه الحول، ثم تبين أنه لم يحل الحول وفيمن يخرج الزكاة، وفي نفسه إذا كان الحول حالا فهي زكاة، وإلا تكون سلفا على ما يجب بعد: هل يجزئ في الصورتين؟

الجواب

نعم، يجزي ذلك في الصورتين جميعا، إذا وجبت الزكاة. والله أعلم.

English translation

English translation prepared for SalafAlSalih.com from the cited Arabic source. It is not an official translation.

Original question

He was asked about a man who held wealth above the niṣāb and paid some obligatory zakah from it, thinking a year had elapsed, then discovered that it had not. He was also asked about someone who pays zakah intending that, if the year has elapsed, it is zakah, and otherwise it is an advance against what will become due later. Does it count in both cases?

Answer

Yes, it counts in both cases when zakah becomes due. Allah knows best.

Source and editorial notes

Majmūʿ al-Fatāwā 25/86

مجموع الفتاوى

Majmūʿ al-Fatāwā

Arabic question and complete answer collated with the cited source text and its adjacent question boundaries. Arabic diacritics omitted, display marks removed and honorific glyphs expanded. Browsing headings and scope notes are editorial.

Read the Arabic source ↗

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